# "More of" vs "more than"

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#### huynhvantinhftu

##### Senior Member
(1) He is more of a boy.
(2) He is more of the boy.
(3) He is more than a boy.
(4) He is more of a man than a boy.

I wonder if these sentences are correct? and what is the difference between them?

• #### lordignus

##### Senior Member
1 is incomplete or at least ambiguous

2 doesn't make sense

3 is okay but has a different meaning to all the others

4 is clear and unambiguous

#### huynhvantinhftu

##### Senior Member
I thank lordignus so much

(3) He is more than a boy.
It mean, he is still a boy, but he has something special compared with other boys. Is it true?
(4) He is more of a man than a boy.
It mean he is a man rather than a boy. Is it true?

Here is a sentence I read somewhere:
To make matters worse, the power fluctuation caused two reactors at the San Onofre nuclear power station to shut down. That cut off even more of San Diego's power supply.
I don't know why "more of San Diego's power supply" is correct?

Is the sentence still correct if I use more than:
That cut off even more than San Diego's power supply.

#### DonnyB

##### Sixties Mod
Here is a sentence I read somewhere:
To make matters worse, the power fluctuation caused two reactors at the San Onofre nuclear power station to shut down. That cut off even more of San Diego's power supply.
I don't know why "more of San Diego's power supply" is correct?

Is the sentence still correct if I use more than:
That cut off even more than San Diego's power supply.
No: that would alter the meaning.

That cut off even more of San Diego's power supply. = It cut off a greater proportion or percentage than it had done up until then.

That cut off even more than San Diego's power supply. = It cut off the whole of San Diego's supply and something else as well.

#### huynhvantinhftu

##### Senior Member
I thank DonnyB so much

more of San Diego's power supply = more power supply of San Diego ?

In "more of San Diego's power supply", we use more of because of possessive adjective "San Diego's" before noun. is it right?
we have the same syntax like: Give me more candy = give me more of the candy. is it right?

#### dojibear

##### Senior Member
"More" is a comparative adjective. It always compares two things.

n "more of San Diego's power supply", we use more of because of possessive adjective "San Diego's" before noun. is it right?
No, we use "more" because we are comparing two things.

To make matters worse, the power fluctuation caused two reactors at the San Onofre nuclear power station to shut down. That cut off even more of San Diego's power supply.
Here "cut off" means "reduced". This is comparing:

a) San Diego's power supply before these two reactors were shut down
b) San Diego's power supply after these two reactors were shut down.

But this sentence says "cut off even more", so this is the second reduction. There was a reduction in power described in sentences before this sentence: sentences you did not include in this thread.

#### dojibear

##### Senior Member
(1) He is more of a boy.
(2) He is more of the boy.
(3) He is more than a boy.
(4) He is more of a man than a boy.
"More" compares two things. Examples (1) and (2) are wrong because they do not compare two things. Example (4) is correct. It compares:
- he is a man
- he is a boy

Sentence (3) is meaningless (incorrect) by itself, but could be correct when used along with another sentence telling us what the second thing is: the thing that is "more than a boy". For example, sentence (3) might be used these ways:

He is more than a boy. He is a teenager.
He is more than a boy. He is a hero.
He is more than a boy. He is an experienced guide to the forest.
He is more than a boy. He is an amazing piano player.

Usually, this would be written as "He is more than just a boy."

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