MSA:is there a logic explanation for form iv verbs which have "causative" meaning?

[rarabara]

assume please i ask which (form iv) verbs had causative meaning, but here i do not want a list, i ask whether there is a rule.
otherwise, shall we memorize each of the meanings one by one as long as we come across?

an external notation: i do not think memorizing something would itself be a bad thing, but of course i wondered whether there was a rule.

the resource that i follow states that form iv verbs "often" had causative meaning.

 

[Mahaodeh]

If you mean form أَفْعَلَ, then it mostly has a causative meaning, but not always. Examples (not list) of non causative meanings include أراد and أكرم.

There is no rule or logical explanation up to my knowledge, these meanings are what were found already existing when grammar rules were made, grammarians found similarities enough for a pattern but not a rule so consider the list of meanings a form has more of a guideline.

 

[rarabara]

If you mean form أَفْعَلَ, then it mostly has a causative meaning, but not always.

yes (for past tense and يُفْعِلُ for present.)

Examples (not list) of non causative meanings include أراد and أكرم.

There is no rule or logical explanation up to my knowledge, these meanings are what were found already existing when grammar rules were made, grammarians found similarities enough for a pattern but not a rule so consider the list of meanings a form has more of a guideline.

ok. thanks. 🐞🐞
actually the time expression above ("often") caused me to look for such a rule or at least consider the probability or wonder it.