My English have improved

  • eddiemel7778

    Senior Member
    Portuguese/Brazil
    Hi there guys!
    To improve, in the following sentence is an intransitive verb, so it doesn't have a passive form. (Intrasitive verbs don't have an object that follows it.) My English has improved.

    But to improve can be a transitive verb as well. (Transitive verbs usually have an object that follows it.) as in the example bellow.

    "I have improved my English" So this sentence is also an active sentence. The passive form for this sentence is "My English has been improved", although it is more common to say "my English has improved" because it's not important to know who has done it and the meaning is very clear that the person who says that is the agent of the action.

    I hope I have helped a bit.
     

    Dracule

    Member
    USA; English
    so I need to go back to middle school and learn passive voice again.

    So passive is: My english has been improved.........

    like its not doing an action..


    heres another example:

    I fixed my car--active
    My car has been fixed by me--passive.


    Right?
     

    dn88

    Senior Member
    Polish
    Well, it feels it should be :):

    I fixed my car - active voice
    My car was fixed by me - passive voice

    I have fixed my car - active voice
    My car has been fixed by me - passive voice
     

    Orange Blossom

    Senior Member
    U.S.A. English
    My English has improved. (Present perfect in Active Voice)

    Is this sentence right?

    If right, can I change this sentence into passive voice?
    Yes it is correct.

    To clarify since the proper passive structure is buried after a number of various active structures:

    To make it passive: My English has been improved.

    Orange Blossom
     

    JamesM

    Senior Member
    Yes it is correct.

    To clarify since the proper passive structure is buried after a number of various active structures:

    To make it passive: My English has been improved.

    Orange Blossom

    Thanks for the explanation, Orange Blossom (and eddiemel7778). Obviously, I have more to learn about this.

    So, for example, "my salary has increased" is in active voice (to use the same form as the original question)? That seems counter-intuitive to me, but grammar rules are often not intuitive. :) To me, "my boss increased my salary" is active, and "my salary has increased" is passive. Can you explain what is not passive about the second sentence?

    [edit]Thinking about it a little more, I think I've got it. "My salary has been increased" has an implied outside agent doing the increasing. "My salary has increased" is stating a fact with no agent, direct or indirect.
     

    Whodunit

    Senior Member
    Deutschland ~ Deutsch/Sächsisch
    We should firstly define what we are supposed to understand by "passive" and "active voice:"

    The passive voice expresses that something is done, but the author is not explicitly mentioned. He can be mentioned, though, as a supplement /using the prespoition 'by' in English). Speaking of grammar, always needs the verb "to be" in any tense plus a past participle form of some verb:

    The car was fixed (by me) yesterday.
    Your window will be repaired (by him) soon.
    The king had been killed (by foreigners) long before.

    Addiotionally, there's another possibility in English to express the passive voice (i.e. by help of a form of 'get'):

    The car got fixed (by me) yesterday.
    Your window will get repaired (by him) soon.
    The king had gotten killed (by foreigners) long before.

    I, personally, consider the last three sentences more colloquial than the ones above, and I wouldn't use "get" with the last two sentences. They sound better with "be."
    ___

    The active voice expresses that sometimes happens actively, i.e. the author is explicitly mentioned in the sentence (he's represented by the function of the subject):

    I fixed the car yesterday.
    He will repair your window soon.
    Foreigners had killed the king long before.
    ___

    As for the original query:

    My English [subject] has [predicate] improved [past participle].
    My English [subject] has [predicate] been [passive copula] improved [past participle].

    However, this rendering is not quite correct, because in the first sentence "improve" is not transitive (a verb that takes a direct object, like 'say'). In the second sentence, we simply made it transitive to get a passive clause.

    The problem is that "improve" can be of both transitive and intransitive character. To complicate things, I would like to add that it can be used reflexively, as well: "to improve oneself." :D
     

    user_gary

    Banned
    India - Hindi
    Thank you friends. [I got it]

    If it was (I improved my English)- (AV), it could be changed into (My English has been improved-(PV)]


    So, I have come into conclusion that this sentence
    (My English has improved] cannot be changed into passive voice.
    Becuase here `improved' is intransitive verb.

    Am I right?
     

    eddiemel7778

    Senior Member
    Portuguese/Brazil
    Yeah! You're deadly right! The problem with English and I think most languages such as Portuguese, some verbs can be Transitive and also Intransitive. For instance: to improve, to take off, and many other verbs.
     
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