According to the tale of Phyllis and Aristotle (see The tale of Phyllis and Aristotle - Wikipedia), Aristotle "excuses himself to Alexander, saying"
Amour vainc tot, & tot vaincra
tant com li monde durera
On the Wikipedia page, the Modern English translation of this Old French verse is "Love conquers all, and all shall conquer / As long as the world shall last". I think the latter part of the first line is ungrammatical in English, and would like to change it to "and shall conquer all". Another editor disagreed, saying "as in French, it's poetic English, and plainly an inversion (and an old one at that)". We know this is inversion of "vaincra tot" for reason of rhyming with the next line. But do you think an English reader with at least high school education but with no knowledge of French will correctly interpret "all" in "all shall conquer" in this poem as the object of the verb "conquer"?
Amour vainc tot, & tot vaincra
tant com li monde durera
On the Wikipedia page, the Modern English translation of this Old French verse is "Love conquers all, and all shall conquer / As long as the world shall last". I think the latter part of the first line is ungrammatical in English, and would like to change it to "and shall conquer all". Another editor disagreed, saying "as in French, it's poetic English, and plainly an inversion (and an old one at that)". We know this is inversion of "vaincra tot" for reason of rhyming with the next line. But do you think an English reader with at least high school education but with no knowledge of French will correctly interpret "all" in "all shall conquer" in this poem as the object of the verb "conquer"?