Persian and Spanish: Bara

Bienvenidos

Senior Member
USA
Afghanistan/USA
After this post, I'm wondering if there is any linguistic connection between the Persian "for - bara" and the Spanish "for - para." Linguistic experts..do you know of any possible connection? I know that some other words in Spanish come from Persian, but I'm not sure about this one.
 
  • Alijsh

    Senior Member
    Persian - Iran
    What I can say is that in this case we are not faced with borrowing. You know, here we deal with preposition. As far as I have seen, languages of different subfamily don't borrow such things.

    So they can be cognate but for the moment I have no idea about it.
     

    Nikola

    Senior Member
    English - American
    para.
    (Del ant. pora).

    1. prep. Denota el fin o término a que se encamina una acción.
    de la rae but it is not cnclusive is it.
     

    Lugubert

    Senior Member
    For, para and several other prepositions in various European languages seem to be related to a PIE *per.

    For the Persian, Steingass' dictionary writes "براى barāy (ba-rāy)" which I interpret as the inseparable preposition ba- 'for' and a suffix (rāy 'road'?). To derive ba from per might be a long shot, especially as Arabic has a preposition bi-.

    I guess that para and barāy are genetically unrelated.
     

    Frank06

    Senior Member
    Nederlands / Dutch (Belgium)
    Hi,
    After this post, I'm wondering if there is any linguistic connection between the Persian "for - bara" and the Spanish "for - para." Linguistic experts..do you know of any possible connection? I know that some other words in Spanish come from Persian, but I'm not sure about this one.
    I am still searching for some more information.
    But what would be a possible scenario for a Persian preposition to pop up in Spanish, knowing that there are cognates of para in the other Romance languages?
    Via Arabic? Quite (if not completely) impossible.
    What would you suggest?

    Groetjes,

    Frank
     

    vince

    Senior Member
    English
    Languages sometimes do borrow basic grammatical words. Other times they might invent one instead of using an ancient root.

    Did you know that English "to have" and French "avoir"/Spanish "haber" / Portuguese "haver" are not related?

    "thing" (as in "something" and "anything") comes from a Germanic word meaning "assembly".

    "para" comes from "por a" (just ask Catalan-speakers), so perhaps it is not related to bara.
     
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