James Bates
Banned
Urdu
It is no surprise that as part of his effort to distance Turkey from its Islamic past the ultra-secular Ata Turk not only discarded the Arabic script but sought to rid the Turkish language of its Perso-Arabic vocabulary as well. Similarly, after centuries of Muslim rule it was only natural for Hindus to want to replace all the Arabic loanwords in Hindi with borrowings from Sanskrit, the language of their religion. It is worth mentioning that all neologisms are drawn from Sanskrit as well.
It is also no surprise that once its speakers had converted to Islam, Persian drew heavily on the language of its speakers' religion for lexical enrichment as well as for neologisms. What surprises me greatly is that in the recent past not only has Persian stopped drawing on the Arabic reservoir for enrichment and new terminology, but there in fact seems to be a move to remove the Arabic borrowings that already exist. Does anybody have any idea why? Do Iranians now disown their Islamic past? De-Arabization would certainly have made sense under the secular Shah, but it makes no sense whatsoever under the current regime. Does anybody have any idea how and why the Iranians' attitude toward Arabic has changed in the recent past?
It is also no surprise that once its speakers had converted to Islam, Persian drew heavily on the language of its speakers' religion for lexical enrichment as well as for neologisms. What surprises me greatly is that in the recent past not only has Persian stopped drawing on the Arabic reservoir for enrichment and new terminology, but there in fact seems to be a move to remove the Arabic borrowings that already exist. Does anybody have any idea why? Do Iranians now disown their Islamic past? De-Arabization would certainly have made sense under the secular Shah, but it makes no sense whatsoever under the current regime. Does anybody have any idea how and why the Iranians' attitude toward Arabic has changed in the recent past?