Philip saw a man () told his case was hopeless.

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park sang joon

Senior Member
Korean
The protagonist, Philip moved in with his uncle Mr. Carey, the Vicar of Blackstable after his mother's death.
He goes to the medical school St. Luke's in London.
He became an out-patients' clerk.
........................................
Sometimes you saw an untaught stoicism which was profoundly moving. Once Philip saw a man, rough and illiterate, told his case was hopeless; and, self-controlled himself, he wondered at the splendid instinct which forced the fellow to keep a stiff upper-lip before strangers.
[Of Human Bondage by Somerset Maugham]
I'd like to know if "was" is implied before "told."
Thank you in advance for your help.
 
  • DaylightDelight

    Senior Member
    Japanese - Tokyo
    Sorry to butt in, but let me see if I understand the sentence correctly:
    • Philip saw a rough and illiterate man
    • the man told that his (= the man's) case was hopeless
    • the man self-controlled himself
    I'm a bit vague about the subject of the second part: who told it, Philip or the man?
     

    park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    Thank you, Glenfarclas and Gleguensis, for your so very kind answers. :)
    Glenfarclas said:
    No, and it would be grammatically wrong if you tried to put "was" there.
    Gleguensis said:
    But you could put "being" or "who was", although both of these alter the meaning in a minor way.
    I can't figure out the reason.
    I have been taught "seel" can take "that" clause as an object when "see" means "look at."

    Then I was wondering why "self-controlling himself" wasn't used for parallel relationship.
     
    Last edited:

    Glenfarclas

    Senior Member
    English (American)
    Then I was wondering why "self-controlling himself" wasn't used for parallel relationship.
    We do not use "self-control" as a verb; and more importantly the sentence is not trying to say that Philip controlled himself at that moment, but that his character was that of a person with self control.
     

    park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    Thank you, Glenfarclas, for your continuing support. :)
    Then I was wondering if "self-controlled himself" means "being self-controlled himself."
     

    Englishmypassion

    Senior Member
    India - Hindi
    I suppose "being" can be inserted before "told" there, though it might cause a difference similar to the difference between "I saw him break the door" and "I saw him breaking the door". Am I on the right track? Thanks.
     

    park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    Thank you, GreenWhiteBlue, Loob, and Englishmypassion, for your so very helpful answers. :)
    Englishmypassion said:
    I suppose "being" can be inserted before "told" there, though it might cause a difference similar to the difference between "I saw him break the door" and "I saw him breaking the door".
    Then I was wondering if you think the subject of "self-controlled" is the patient, not the protagonist.
     

    park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    Thank you, Glenfarclas, for your continuing support. :)
    Then I was wondering how an adjective can modify a personal pronoun before it.
     

    park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    I'm so sorry, Glenfarclas, for my terrible mistake. :)
    I was wondering how an adjective can modify a personal pronoun after it as in "beautiful as always, she swept into the room..."
     

    Loob

    Senior Member
    English UK
    PSJ, your original question was about "Philip saw a man told his case was hopeless", which equates to "Philip saw a man be told his case was hopeless" (infinitive after verb of sensing) - it's just that we would normally omit the "be" in this sort of construction.

    Now you're asking about "self-controlled", which is part of a different construction: "self-controlled himself, he [= Philip] wondered at the splendid instinct....". It's perfectly normal to put the descriptive phrase first: there's nothing wrong with
    "beautiful as always, she swept into the room..."
     

    park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    Thank you, Loob, for your so very kind answer. :)
    PSJ, your original question was about "Philip saw a man told his case was hopeless", which equates to "Philip saw a man be told his case was hopeless" (infinitive after verb of sensing) - it's just that we would normally omit the "be" in this sort of construction.
    I didn't ask the question.
    I asked if "Philip saw a man told his case was hopeless" is equal to "Philip saw a man was told his case was hopeless"
    I have been taught "see" take "that" clause as an object though "see" is used as verb of sensing.
    And I was wondering if what I have been taught is right.
     

    velisarius

    Senior Member
    British English (Sussex)
    This is a case of "verb of sensation + bare infinitive/-ing form", as in "I saw him run/running". Here the second verb is passive, and "be/being" has been omitted. This is not very usual.

    I saw a man be told/I saw a man being told> I saw a man told.
     

    Loob

    Senior Member
    English UK
    I was wondering if I can say "I saw that a man was told."
    "See" can be followed by
    - a direct object
    - a direct object + bare infinitive
    - a direct object + ING-form
    - a that-clause.

    "Saw" in "I saw that a man was told" would not mean "witnessed with the eyes"; it would mean something closer to "realised".
     
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