Dear All,
'A Practical Hungarian Grammar' by Akademiai Kiado says the following on page 82 (at the bottom): The prefix (igekötő) does not generally separate from the verb in statements but it separates in negations.
In this particular case they discuss the usage of imperative in final clauses (mellékmondatok) and they give two examples:
Azt akarom, hogy elmenj. I want you to leave. (lit.: I want that you leave).
Azt akarom, hogy ne menj el. I don't want you to leave. (lit.: I want that you don't leave.)
The second example is clear to me but I'm a bit confused about the first example and why the prefix does not separate. I understand that the focus there is on the verb itself but still, this is in the imperative mode...
Would it be wrong to say: 'Azt akarom, hogy menj el! ' and if so, how would this be different from their example?
Thank you!
'A Practical Hungarian Grammar' by Akademiai Kiado says the following on page 82 (at the bottom): The prefix (igekötő) does not generally separate from the verb in statements but it separates in negations.
In this particular case they discuss the usage of imperative in final clauses (mellékmondatok) and they give two examples:
Azt akarom, hogy elmenj. I want you to leave. (lit.: I want that you leave).
Azt akarom, hogy ne menj el. I don't want you to leave. (lit.: I want that you don't leave.)
The second example is clear to me but I'm a bit confused about the first example and why the prefix does not separate. I understand that the focus there is on the verb itself but still, this is in the imperative mode...
Would it be wrong to say: 'Azt akarom, hogy menj el! ' and if so, how would this be different from their example?
Thank you!