gvergara
Senior Member
Castellano (variedad chilensis)
Hi,
I do not quite understand this explanation... I mean, I can understand it, but I am not sure as to how exactly use the possessives for pan/pani/państwo.
The possessive adjectives (also used as possessive pronouns) derived from the personal pronouns are mój, twój, jego (m., n.)/jej (f.); nasz, wasz, ich. There is also a reflexive possessive swój. The polite second-person pronouns have possessives identical to the genitives of the corresponding nouns, although there is a possessive adjective pański corresponding to pan.
I have pasted an extract of the Wikipedia article on Polish grammar, which, as I understand it, says two things: 1.- it indicates that the possessives for the polite second person pronouns are their genitive forms pana (male), pani (female), and państwa (group), but I do not understand whether these forms are declined, and 2.- it also says that the masculine pronoun pan has its own possessive pański, which is declined as a normal adjective according to this dictionary. Then, I "read" this thread, but did not actually understand it. Could you please shed some light on these two points?
Thanks so much in advance,
G.
I do not quite understand this explanation... I mean, I can understand it, but I am not sure as to how exactly use the possessives for pan/pani/państwo.
The possessive adjectives (also used as possessive pronouns) derived from the personal pronouns are mój, twój, jego (m., n.)/jej (f.); nasz, wasz, ich. There is also a reflexive possessive swój. The polite second-person pronouns have possessives identical to the genitives of the corresponding nouns, although there is a possessive adjective pański corresponding to pan.
I have pasted an extract of the Wikipedia article on Polish grammar, which, as I understand it, says two things: 1.- it indicates that the possessives for the polite second person pronouns are their genitive forms pana (male), pani (female), and państwa (group), but I do not understand whether these forms are declined, and 2.- it also says that the masculine pronoun pan has its own possessive pański, which is declined as a normal adjective according to this dictionary. Then, I "read" this thread, but did not actually understand it. Could you please shed some light on these two points?
Thanks so much in advance,
G.
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