Presumed to be

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angryredpen

New Member
English, Russian
I am wondering whether the following is correct:

"If no date is given, the resignation will be presumed to be effective immediately."

Is the "to be" necessary? Would "presumed effective immediately" be correct?

I'm looking for a "correct" answer (i.e., not one that is based solely on common usage or what "sounds" correct).

Thank you!
 
  • PaulQ

    Senior Member
    UK
    English - England
    I don't think it is absolutely necessary to include it, the verb "to be" is often omitted as understood- "Your husband is missing, [he is] presumed [to be] dead... was he heavily insured?"
     
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