Qué diós les bendiga / los/as bendiga

    • gotitadeleche said:
    Which is correct to say: Qué diós les bendiga, or Qué diós los/as bendiga?

    Thank you.
    Click to expand...

    Dios les bendiga sirve cuando hay un grupo con integrantes de ambos sexos.
    Dios las bendiga es específico para damas... y Dios los bendiga es para caballeros.
     
    A mi me parece que la segunda opción queda mejor. Al menos, para mí, que Dios les bendiga no suena muy bien, aun que no por eso esta mal. Simplemente, que yo estoy acostumbrada a oir hablar de los/las a les.
    sniv.
     
    I thought les would be used if it is an indirect object and los/las would be used if it is a direct object. The problem here is that I am not sure if it is considered indirect or direct.
     
    Es indirecto ya que se refiere a personas. Gramaticalmente, la mejor sería la primer opción. Aun que como ya dije antes, para mí, la segunda opción suena mejor.
     
    gotitadeleche said:
    I thought les would be used if it is an indirect object and los/las would be used if it is a direct object. The problem here is that I am not sure if it is considered indirect or direct.
    Click to expand...
    It seems you might have bumped into the 'leísmo' problem. The way I learnt it is that 'les' is the indirect object ('to them', 'for them', 'to you all', etc) and 'los' is the direct object for any group that includes at least one male, with 'las' used as the direct object relating to an all-female group. And from what I've seen this is the way it is in for many Spanish speakers in some parts of the world. Others use the 'le' form of direct object and, in many cases at least, it seems to be a form of politeness, although I think I've seen it used where you might also expect to see a personal 'a' ('lo' + 'a' = 'le').

    If you use 'lo(s)' and 'la(s)' as the direct objects and 'le(s)' as the indirect objects, but also use 'le(s)' for the polite 2nd-person direct object (as in "Le llamo mañana") I think everyone would understand you. I'd be interested to read more comments from native Spanish speakers, though.
     
    gotitadeleche said:
    I thought les would be used if it is an indirect object and los/las would be used if it is a direct object. The problem here is that I am not sure if it is considered indirect or direct.
    Click to expand...

    Hi Gotita. I think you're dead right.

    One of our fellow foreros (sorry, can't remember who!) has told me twice in other threads that the foolproof way of determing whether on object is direct or indirect is by knowing whether or not the verbal phrase can be put into the passive voice. If it can be rendered in the passive, then the object is direct, if it cannot, then the object is indirect. E.g:

    1) Juan leo los periodicos (active)
    Los periodicos son leidos por Juan (passive)
    therefore the object of the active sentence (los periodicos) is direct, therefore if we replace it with a pronoun we get
    Juan los leo

    2) Juan (le) dijo a mi madre que .... (active)
    *Mi madre fue dicha por Juan que ...* (this passive construction is not possible in Spanish)
    therefore the object (mi madre) is indirect, so with a pronoun we get
    Juan le dijo que ....

    I'm not convined that this is a leismo/loismo issue, as according to the grammar books I have read on the subject the le v. lo debate only applies to singular pronouns. E.g. in my example 1) above, not even a leista would say Juan les leo. If this is not the case, I would certainly be interested to hear more.

    Anyway, to address your original question, I think you need to ask if the verb bendecir can be rendered in the passive. I.e. is the sentence
    Ellos son bendichos por Dios
    acceptable in Spanish. If it is, then the correct pronoun is los (or las), however if it is not then you need the indirect pronoun les. My guess is that, as bendecir derives from decir, that the passive is not possible and you will need les.

    This is an issue which has confused me for a long time! I'll try and dig out the previous threads on this subject, which might help.
     
    Hola a todos:

    En primer lugar deciros que el verbo "bendecir" es transitivo, es decir, toma objeto directo:
    Bendecir los panes
    Bendecir a los feligreses

    Es, ademas, un verbo con participio pasado regular: bendecido. Existe otro "bendito" que se usa unicamente como adjetivo calificativo. No existe "bendicho".

    Tambien sabeis que el leismo ya esta aceptado por la RAE de la lengua, por lo tanto es correcto decir "Que Dios los bendiga" ( a ustedes/los panes/ a mis amigos) como decir "Que Dios les bendiga" ( a uds./los panes/ a mis amigos).
     
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