que me tenha ferido vs que tenha-me ferido?

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kartesienne

New Member
Russian
Dear all,

I have this eternal ênclise vs próclise doubt in complex forms of Subjunctive.

Everything is clear with se eu me iludisse, but with se eu tivesse-me iludido I start getting lost: does this tivesse form prevent próclise from happening?
And is this optional / region-specific / register-specific, because I do find both versions in google, que me tenha X and que tenha-me X...

Sorry if this was a stupid question! :) Thanks so much.
 
  • kartesienne

    New Member
    Russian
    No Brasil, é mais natural colocar o pronome entre os dois verbos: "Se eu tivesse me iludido" .
    Thank you!
    Whenever I struggle with grammar, it is a comforting thought that I might be accidentally hitting a variant which is correct anyway in some parts of the world... :)
     

    kartesienne

    New Member
    Russian
    ahah! Which variant are you learning?
    I live in Mexico, so I mostly follow Brazilian media, and watch some tutorials related to my sport hobby (which is Brazilian jiu-jitsu).
    And I remember meeting a group of Portuguese tourists once, and, linguistically, that was a shocking experience, I failed to understand most basic conversations -))
     
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