reverse causation

locombia74

New Member
spanish
Hi,

could you help me with the understanding of the following prhase: 'The statistical analysis ruled out the reverse causation of income levels leading to higher associative activity'.

I find confusing the term 'reverse' since the causation between income and associative activity is positive ('incoem levels leading to higher associative activity'.

Thanks
 
  • Suspishio

    Senior Member
    English - England
    "Reverse causation/causality" means that the effect has preceded the cause.

    I've read the full passage at http://books.google.co.uk/books?id=...ma39Dw&sa=X&oi=book_result&resnum=1&ct=result.

    The statistical research did show a correlation between income levels and higher associative activity. There is a thrust in the fuller text that "associative activity" leads to higher per capita income,

    So the confusing part of the passage intends to convey the meaning that the reverse was not true (you've obviously comprehended this); i.e. income levels did not lead to higher associative activity". This is not strictly conformant with the accepted meaning of "reverse causality/causation" but it is semantically correct taking the words "reverse causation" in their separate individual meaning.
     
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