ripe enough for me to eat (it?)

Baltic Sea

Banned
Polish
Hello again!

Am I right in thinking that it is correct to say "An apple is ripe enough for me to eat", not "An apple is ripe enough for me to eat it".

Any comments would be appreciated.
 
  • owlman5

    Senior Member
    English-US
    I agree that you don't need "it" in your sentence, Baltic Sea. I don't think it's necessarily wrong to include the pronoun "it" in the statement, but it's definitely not necessary.
     

    Baltic Sea

    Banned
    Polish
    I have a real dilemma here. On the one hand, one book (in English) on English grammar advises against using it (or other pronoun) at the end of a sentence. On the other hand, an acquaintance of mine kept persuading me that it is right to use it (or other pronoun) at the end of a sentence.
     

    airportzombie

    Senior Member
    English - CaE/AmE
    I'm not sure if you can use it in this type of sentence. It seems odd to have the object in these ones:
    The pie is ready for me to eat it.

    You are good enough for me to marry you.
    In the first one, it sounds like the pie is waiting for me to eat something (whatever that it is).

    The construction [subject] + to be + [adjective] + for + [pronoun] + [infinitive] is strange because the subject acts like the object of the infinitive. I'm sure there's a forum grammarian out there that can explain it more.
     

    owlman5

    Senior Member
    English-US
    I have a real dilemma here. On the one hand, one book (in English) on English grammar advises against using it (or other pronoun) at the end of a sentence. On the other hand, an acquaintance of mine kept persuading me that it is right to use it (or other pronoun) at the end of a sentence.
    I think you should go with the advice you found in the grammar book. As I told you before, I might not notice anything wrong with "it" beyond a certain redundancy. As the pronoun is redundant, you can abandon it no matter what your acquaintance advises.

    However, I'd ignore the advice in that book that tells you not to end a sentence with a pronoun. "I saw him. I ate it." - there is nothing wrong with either one of those sentences, both of which end in pronouns.
     
    Last edited:

    George French

    Senior Member
    English - UK
    Hello again!

    Am I right in thinking that it is correct to say "An apple is ripe enough for me to eat", not "An apple is ripe enough for me to eat it".

    Any comments would be appreciated.
    Isn't the "problem" with this sentence is the use of the indefinite article. If you change the sentence to start with the definite article the instead of an then this is OK..

    Should you use an in this sentence? I'm not happy with it....

    GF..
     

    Parla

    Member Emeritus
    English - US
    If you want it to sound idiomatic, you should omit not only "it" but also "for me". We'd usually say: This apple is ripe enough to eat.
     
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