Probably yes. The page I linked above refers to two -ite:Seems odd, surely Latin had a similar associative ending before contact with Greeks,
You're right of course. Perhaps then "ναύ-της" (from ναῦς=ship) or the toponymic Eleā-tes (from Elea).
Sounds logical explanation.so perhaps speakers of both Latin and Greek used i (syncopated in tiburs) after consonant stems and ī after another i?
Latin and Greek originally had -tas & -tes, which would often follow an "i" depending on what word they were attached to. But the "i" getting stuck to the suffix and becoming part of it began in Greek with the reanalysis of "poli-tes" as "pol-ites" and spread from there.Seems odd, surely Latin had a similar associative ending before contact with Greeks, how did they use to say 'she's Roman/Greek'? Maybe they just said 'she is from Rome/Greece'.
In Czech we also have only one town name that uses a similar suffix:Are there any other city names that use this suffix?