¡Buenas tardes! My question is in regard to ser/ir in the preterite tense. I realize they both are identical (fui, fuiste, fue, fuimos, fuisteis, fueron), but I'm wondering why are they identical? Is there some particular reason? In Latin, the equivalent verbs are different in the preterite. Is there some historical reason these two are different? Some linguistic reason? I'm just curious. Thanks!