She cannot be a fool to pass the exam.

Julianus

Senior Member
Korean
Hello.

1a. She says so. Threfore, she cannot be a fool. b. She cannot be a fool to say so. c. She cannot be a fool to have said so.
2a. She passed the exam. Threfore, she cannot be a fool. b. She cannot be a fool to pass the exam. c. She cannot be a fool to have passed the exam.

As far as I know, (a) versions can be rephrased with (b) or (c) versions. But, there happens a problem of tense agreement. I think 1a can be rephrased with 1b, not 1c, while 2a can be rephrased with 2b or 2c. In other words, 2b as well as 2c can have the same meaning as 2a. Am I right?

Thank you always~.
 
  • Julianus

    Senior Member
    Korean
    Is 1b grammatically incorrect? I think that when someone is certainly right, one can say like this. Am I right?
     

    Forero

    Senior Member
    Is 1b grammatically incorrect? I think that when someone is certainly right, one can say like this. Am I right?
    There is nothing wrong with it grammatically, and there is no problem with tenses in any of the sentences.

    There is some ambiguity because of the question of whether the infinitive is part of what is being negated.
     
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