since - for

Hello everybody,
Is a sentence like " I'm home for 2 hours" in any way misleading?
Does it only mean " I'm home/ I've been home since 2 hours ago" or also " I'm gonna be home for 2 hours more" ?
 
  • Paulfromitaly said:
    Hello everybody,
    Is a sentence like " I'm home for 2 hours" in any way misleading?
    Does it only mean " I'm home/ I've been home since 2 hours ago" or also " I'm gonna be home for 2 hours more" ?


    Hello Paul,


    It means,literally, "I am at home for two hours (then I'll be going out [understood]).

    You can say,

    "It's 9 o/clock. I came in at 7 o/clock, which means I've been at home for two hours."

    "It's 9 o/clock. I'm going to be at home for two more hours, which means I shall be leaving at 11 o/clock."



    LRV
     
    So the meaning is:
    "It's 9 o/clock. I'm going to be at home for two more hours, which means I shall be leaving at 11 o/clock"
    and if I want to say something like :
    "It's 9 o/clock. I came in at 7 o/clock, which means I've been at home for two hours." I should say "I've been home since 2 hours ago".
    Correct?
     

    Kelly B

    Senior Member
    USA English
    I would generally understand the sentence "I'm home for 2 hours" to mean that you will be home for two more hours [from now], then you will leave.

    This is quite different from "I've been home for 2 hours" or "I arrived/got home two hours ago" or "I've been home since 7:00." I would use the word since when you specify the hour, but not the length of time.
     
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