Since Monday, he has <gone>/<been gone>/<been in/to> London.

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Torontonian94

Member
English - Canadian
1.) Since Monday, he has gone to London. (Sometime between Monday and now, he has went to London.)
2.) Since Monday, he has been gone to London. (Since Monday, he went to London and is spending time there.)
3.) Since Monday, he has been in London. (Same as #2.)
4.) Since Monday, he has been to London. (Same as #1.)


The above sentences all mean around the same thing, but there are some subtle differences. I'm not sure if I have the meaning of each sentence correct, so if you wouldn't mind, would you guys be able to confirm my interpretation of each sentence, and if any are incorrect to submit your own interpretation?
 
  • panjandrum

    Lapsed Moderator
    English-Ireland (top end)
    For me, only (3) is a good English sentence - well, perhaps (4) too, though I'd like it better as "Since Monday he has been to London once."
    "Since Monday" refers the period from Monday until now.
    What follows ought to be something that applies throughout that period.
     

    Torontonian94

    Member
    English - Canadian
    For me, only (3) is a good English sentence - well, perhaps (4) too, though I'd like it better as "Since Monday he has been to London once."
    "Since Monday" refers the period from Monday until now.
    What follows ought to be something that applies throughout that period.

    I commonly hear sentences like, "He has been gone since last Tuesday." So, why wouldn't #1 make sense?


    Also, if I rearranged the first sentence as
    "He has gone to London sometime since Monday", would it make sense?



     

    Giorgio Spizzi

    Senior Member
    Italian
    Hullo, Toro.

    Maybe you've heard something like "He's been gone for a week".
    Also, "He has been ... London" would normally be interpreted as "... went there and came back ...", while "He has gone to London" would be pronounced to inform the listener that "He" is not here now (perhaps he's on his way back to his place of origin, or he is still splurging in London, etc.).

    "He has went to London", instead, I've never come across.

    GS :)
     

    JamesM

    Senior Member
    I commonly hear sentences like, "He has been gone since last Tuesday." So, why wouldn't #1 make sense?


    This would make sense if he left the company or was fired. "He's gone" is often used in casual speech to mean "he is no longer with the company". It wouldn't make sense in relation to a trip, although I imagine it's possible that some people might say it.

    Some people might say anything. I hear "he has went" from time to time. It's still not a standard conjugation in English (he goes, he has gone, he went). "He has went" is a mixture of two conjugations.
     

    Torontonian94

    Member
    English - Canadian
    This would make sense if he left the company or was fired. "He's gone" is often used in casual speech to mean "he is no longer with the company". It wouldn't make sense in relation to a trip, although I imagine it's possible that some people might say it.

    Some people might say anything. I hear "he has went" from time to time. It's still not a standard conjugation in English (he goes, he has gone, he went). "He has went" is a mixture of two conjugations.

    Sorry, I meant #2. My bad!

    The original question in post #4 was supposed to be - "I commonly hear sentences like, "He has been gone since last Tuesday." So, why wouldn't #2 make sense?"
     

    Bevj

    Allegra Moderata (Sp/Eng, Cat)
    English (U.K.)
    He has been gone since Monday :tick:
    He has been gone to London since Monday :cross:
    He has been in London since Monday :tick:

    'Been gone to' is not correct.
     

    JamesM

    Senior Member
    Because "he has been gone since Tuesday" essentially means "He has been absent since Tuesday". He can't be absent to London. It doesn't make sense in English. It's similar to saying "He has been sick since Tuesday". You couldn't say "He has been sick to London." :)
     
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