singular + their

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Lukasz Szuminski

New Member
Polish
Hello everybody,

Which sentence is correct:

1/ An ordinary male has got no ingredients in his fridge.
2/ An ordinary male has got no ingredients in their fridge.

Can we apply the same rule as in here?
eg. Nobody plays football in their home.

Take care,
Lukasz Szumin
 
  • xqby

    Senior Member
    English (U.S.)
    "Their" only works for singular subjects if the gender isn't specified. It would have to be the first one.

    "Nobody plays football in their home" is fine, because "nobody" is gender-neutral. "Male" is not.
     

    SwissPete

    Senior Member
    Français (CH), AE (California)
    1/ An ordinary male has got no ingredients in his fridge. :tick:
    2/ An ordinary male has got no ingredients in their fridge. :cross:

    Nobody plays football in their his or her home.

    or
    People do not play football in their homes.
     

    Grumpy Old Man

    Senior Member
    "Nobody plays football in their home" is fine, because "nobody" is gender-neutral. "Male" is not.
    Person is gender-neutral as well, which would make A person cannot return to their home town correct. Many object to it.

    However, their has been used with everybody, nobody etc. for centuries, and I consider this usage correct.
     

    Lukasz Szuminski

    New Member
    Polish
    I wonder though about this sentence:

    "At one and the same time a teenager is pulled back towards their childhood, with pangs of dependence, and onward to adulthood, with a longing for independence from their parents and their history"

    How come we can apply this pattern to the word "teenager", but not to the word "male"? Would anyone explain it to me :) ?
     
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