First I heard “gdo” in a Hungarian village by a local who spoke Slovak. I thought it was just a rare dialectic form of “kto”. But since then I was hearing it a lot of times and start to feel that it is a general phenomenon. As a sideinfo I know that in Slovak there is the assimilation rule of “spoluhlásky”, so “holub” is pronounced as “holup” or “riedky” as “rietky” etc. But in case of “kto” both “k” and “t” are “neznelé spoluhlásky”, so I guess saying it as “gdo” has maybe nothing to do with the assimilation.
1. Or is there any sort of double assimilation involving a vowel ? I mean because of “o” “t” becomes “d”, and because of that “k” becomes “g”?
2. If so and before a vowel there is always an assimilation see “k obloku” as “gobloku” then a pure “to” would be pronounced as “do” which would cause a lot of confusion in understanding short words like these two, and anyway I never heard “to” pronounced this way.
3. “Kto” is pronounced as “gdo”, but is the the same with all the words starting with “kt”, like “ktorý, ktosi, ktohovie”, and also those where “kt” is in the middle of a word, like “niekto, nikto, niktoš”?
4. Special case
: nektár is pronounced like nektár, isn’t it?
1. Or is there any sort of double assimilation involving a vowel ? I mean because of “o” “t” becomes “d”, and because of that “k” becomes “g”?
2. If so and before a vowel there is always an assimilation see “k obloku” as “gobloku” then a pure “to” would be pronounced as “do” which would cause a lot of confusion in understanding short words like these two, and anyway I never heard “to” pronounced this way.
3. “Kto” is pronounced as “gdo”, but is the the same with all the words starting with “kt”, like “ktorý, ktosi, ktohovie”, and also those where “kt” is in the middle of a word, like “niekto, nikto, niktoš”?
4. Special case