A paper on 'Modality' has this sentence (page 10, line 221):
Rather, it seems to mean just a 'to-infinitive' that modifies enough.
...this multiplicity of modal meanings is common enough cross-linguistically, and in languages from different families, to make a lexical ambiguity account unlikely...
If my interpretation of 'so as to' here is correct, why is it used like this?
Normally, 'so as to' is used to describe a purpose. But this 'so as to' doesn't seem to describe such a meaning.However, this multiplicity of modal meanings is common enough cross-linguistically, and in languages from different families, so as to make a lexical ambiguity account unlikely: it is highly improbable that the same lexical accident should be found in language after language.
Rather, it seems to mean just a 'to-infinitive' that modifies enough.
...this multiplicity of modal meanings is common enough cross-linguistically, and in languages from different families, to make a lexical ambiguity account unlikely...
If my interpretation of 'so as to' here is correct, why is it used like this?
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