(some) areas of France and England

VicNicSor

Banned
Russian
The exaggerated aligning of ordinary Muslims with terrorism by the media was recently seen when, in the wake of the Charlie Hebdo attack in Paris, self-titled ‘terrorism expert’ Steven Emerson falsely described areas of France and England as being governed by Islamic Sharia law and off-limits to non-Muslims.
Is Islam The New Communism?, YouTube video

This usage of "areas" without "some" before it struck me as odd. Did it you too?... Thanks.
 
  • VicNicSor

    Banned
    Russian
    Vic - would you have had the same feeling with "parts" instead of "areas"?
    No, "parts" and "areas" sound different. "Parts of France and England" is unambiguous, while "areas of France and England" could theoretically mean "areas called France and England", that is, refer to the whole France/England:eek:
     

    london calling

    Senior Member
    UK English
    No, "parts" and "areas" sound different. "Parts of France and England" is unambiguous, while "areas of France and England" could theoretically mean "areas called France and England", that is, refer to the whole France/England:eek:
    Er no, Vic: "areas of France and England" cannot theoretically mean "areas called France and England" and therefore cannot refer to the whole of France/England.
     

    VicNicSor

    Banned
    Russian
    Compare these two patterns, please:
    1. "said that areas of the country"
    Google
    2. "said that some areas of the country"
    Google

    As you see, the examples without "some" (all except for the Wiki one) are followed by a relative clause or other desription. Whereas those with "some" are followed by a verb (which is similar to the OP). Which means that in structures like in the OP, "some" is used more often... Do you agree with this idea:)
     
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