(Hopefully I didn't break any rule by effectively asking about three different words (although they are of the same meaning). If I did, I'll separate the threads as instructed.)
1) I am guessing that حِصَان ḥiṣān is unrelated with the ح-ص-ن root meaning "to be inaccessible", and thus it is a standalone noun, correct? If so, is there any idea about the source of the word? If not, how did the meaning "horse" derive from that root (and from my understanding, the ح-ص-ن root of the meaning "to be inaccessible" is native to Arabic, correct)?
2) Do anyone know the source of the word خَيْل khayl, and/or why it means plural horses rather than singular horse?
3) For the word فَرَس faras, I know that several Semitic languages have cognates, and this site that suggests it not only derives from Proto-Semitic, but that it goes all the way back to Proto-Afroasiatic with identifiable cognates in Cushitic, Chadic, and Omotic (assuming Omotic is actually Afroasiatic). This seems reasonable to me, but I have also seen some other sites that discussed Arabic faras and/or Hebrew parash say that origins of the word are unknown (I guess implying that the "cognates" that are seen in the different languages are borrowings from each other, with the ultimate source being unknown; also there is discussion as to whether parash or parrāsh is the primary word and whether it means a horse or a horseman)...................anyways, if the word is Proto-Semitic in origin, is that THE Proto-Semitic word for "horse", or is no such word reconstructable for Proto-Semitic?
1) I am guessing that حِصَان ḥiṣān is unrelated with the ح-ص-ن root meaning "to be inaccessible", and thus it is a standalone noun, correct? If so, is there any idea about the source of the word? If not, how did the meaning "horse" derive from that root (and from my understanding, the ح-ص-ن root of the meaning "to be inaccessible" is native to Arabic, correct)?
2) Do anyone know the source of the word خَيْل khayl, and/or why it means plural horses rather than singular horse?
3) For the word فَرَس faras, I know that several Semitic languages have cognates, and this site that suggests it not only derives from Proto-Semitic, but that it goes all the way back to Proto-Afroasiatic with identifiable cognates in Cushitic, Chadic, and Omotic (assuming Omotic is actually Afroasiatic). This seems reasonable to me, but I have also seen some other sites that discussed Arabic faras and/or Hebrew parash say that origins of the word are unknown (I guess implying that the "cognates" that are seen in the different languages are borrowings from each other, with the ultimate source being unknown; also there is discussion as to whether parash or parrāsh is the primary word and whether it means a horse or a horseman)...................anyways, if the word is Proto-Semitic in origin, is that THE Proto-Semitic word for "horse", or is no such word reconstructable for Proto-Semitic?