Spanish hollín /soot/& Korean 그을음 (keueul-eum) /soot/

kadearly

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Etymology of Spanish word hollín /soot/

Compare Spanish word hollín /soot/ and Korean word 그을음 (keueul-eum, көл-ым) /soot/.
 
  • Penyafort

    Senior Member
    Catalan (Catalonia), Spanish (Spain)
    Spanish hollín comes from the Latin accusative fulligine(m), accusative of fuligo. So do Italian fuliggine, Portuguese fuligem, Romanian funingine. (French suie and Catalan sutge have a different origin)

    Spanish h- often comes from an old f-, not from a k-. I don't know the origin for the Korean one, but I clearly assume there is no relationship at all.
     

    Penyafort

    Senior Member
    Catalan (Catalonia), Spanish (Spain)
    Sardinian as always uses another Latin synonymous : fumàdigu (from Latin "fumaticum", derived from "fumus" = smoke).
    Interesting choice!

    In Catalan, apart from sutge, there is also estalzí (or estalzim), from still another Latin synonym, stillicidium. There must have been lots of soot in Roman times. :p
     

    merquiades

    Senior Member
    English (USA Northeast)
    Etymology of Spanish word hollín /soot/

    Compare Spanish word hollín /soot/ and Korean word 그을음 (keueul-eum, көл-ым) /soot/.
    I don't see how the two terms could be related. How is the Korean word pronounced? [kʰo- ˈʎim]
    Knowing that the Spanish word comes directly from classical Latin, no doubts about that one, the only way there could be a connection would be if Korean had taken the Spanish word some time in the past when the the /h/ was still aspirated, and they in turn, turned it into an aspirated /k/. But how could this have happened and why? What is your theory?
     

    Penyafort

    Senior Member
    Catalan (Catalonia), Spanish (Spain)
    I don't see how the two terms could be related. How is the Korean word pronounced? [kʰo- ˈʎim]
    Knowing that the Spanish word comes directly from classical Latin, no doubts about that one, the only way there could be a connection would be if Korean had taken the Spanish word some time in the past when the the /h/ was still aspirated, and they in turn, turned it into an aspirated /k/. But how could this have happened and why? What is your theory?
    Agree. And, in the hypothetical case some contact had taken place, why that word? Because if the Japanese took the word pan from the Portuguese, it obviously was because the concept was alien to their culture.
     

    merquiades

    Senior Member
    English (USA Northeast)
    Agree. And, in the hypothetical case some contact had taken place, why that word? Because if the Japanese took the word pan from the Portuguese, it obviously was because the concept was alien to their culture.
    And again, being hypothetical to an extreme, if this contact took place there would probably be other more common Spanish loan words too. I see Ulíng is the word in Tagalog but it looks like there are thousands of other Spanish loan words too.
     

    merquiades

    Senior Member
    English (USA Northeast)
    This is all very interesting. I don't know how all these Asian languages got a word for soot close to the one in Spanish. Or perhaps it's just a coincidence.
     
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