Sumerian: 𒍣𒂠

[𒈠𒀭𒅖𒌅𒋢]

I have a question for all you Sumerian lovers.

𒅗𒌤𒀀 𒉺𒇻 𒍣𒂠 𒌦𒈠 𒁀𒉌𒅆𒊒𒁕𒀀

Transliteration: gu3-de2-a sipad zid-še3 kalam-ma ba-ni-pad3-da-a

Analysis: Gudea.∅ sipad...kalam.a ba.ni.n.pad3.∅.a

Translation: (When Ningirsu) chose Gudea for (being) the true shepherd of the land for himself.

How do you analyze 𒍣𒂠? Also, why is 𒀀 there at the end when they already have 𒁕 to show the presence of the subordinate marker?

 

[xbt]

I would prefer to read 𒍣𒂠 as zid-eš2 than zid-še3. Remember, 𒂠 can have either value.

eš is the basic form of the adverbiative enclitic. zid.eš would mean in the right manner, since zid means (to be) right.

 

[𒈠𒀭𒅖𒌅𒋢]

Then should the translation have been "(When Ningirsu) chose, in the right manner, Gudea for (being) the shepherd of the land for himself."?

How can an adverb intervene between two nouns that are part of the same genitive construction?