How can anybody know why? There are languages where this exist, there are those where it doesn't. There are languages that do have grammatical genders but the articles are still only determined phonetically and say nothing about the gender. I am not even going to tell you why I believe that three grammatical genderds existed in all Germanic languages or why one or two of them went down the drain. That wouldn't change the end result - that they still exist.Thanks. But really weird why anyone would ever need or want to do it in the first place ? Like saying a male man, a female woman, a male horse and a female cow and a male point and a female car....
One example is MalteseWhat do you mean by "determined phonetically"? And which languages did you have in mind?
I don't like to be nitpicking but this is perhaps best described as phonological and not phonetic. That being said, given that morphemes expressing definiteness are highly likely to cliticise to the noun*, they easily lose their syntactic independency and are thus not good diagnostics for grammatical gender. In other words, articles don't have to say anything about grammatical gender a priori. They are not even found in every language.One example is Maltese
ir-ragel - the man
il-mara - the woman
it-tifla - the girl
it-tifel - the boy/child
As you see, the article has nothing to do with the gender - it just has to work phonetically with the noun. However, when you add adjectives or use third person verbs you'll see that the gender still is of importance. It wouldn't surprise me if it were similar in other Semitic languages. And there are so many languages in this world so there are probably other ways to handle it than I could imagine.