Cześć,
In the same recording that I referred to in a previous thread (on the twelfth page of this file), the woman pronounces the "ż" in "też" in two different ways.
When she says "też dobrze," she pronounces it normally (voiced). When she says "Ja też muszę iść" she pronounces it like a "sz" (unvoiced).
The book states that the letter "ż" is pronounced like a "sz" (unvoiced) at the end of a word - so I would have expected the pronunciation to be /tesz/ both times.
Are both pronunciations acceptable? Are there rules dictating when there has to be a pronunciation change and when there doesn't?
As a matter of fact, it would be great if we could extend this discussion to other voiced sounds that - according to the book - become unvoiced at the end of a word. The voiced sounds b, d, dz, g, rz, w, z, ź, and ż are supposed to be pronounced like the unvoiced sounds p, t, c, k, sz, f, s, ś, and sz, respectively, at the end of a word. Does this always apply, or are there exceptions? If so, are there rules for when devocalization does not occur? Is it a dialectal thing?
I would appreciate any insight on the matter. Dziękuję.
In the same recording that I referred to in a previous thread (on the twelfth page of this file), the woman pronounces the "ż" in "też" in two different ways.
When she says "też dobrze," she pronounces it normally (voiced). When she says "Ja też muszę iść" she pronounces it like a "sz" (unvoiced).
The book states that the letter "ż" is pronounced like a "sz" (unvoiced) at the end of a word - so I would have expected the pronunciation to be /tesz/ both times.
Are both pronunciations acceptable? Are there rules dictating when there has to be a pronunciation change and when there doesn't?
As a matter of fact, it would be great if we could extend this discussion to other voiced sounds that - according to the book - become unvoiced at the end of a word. The voiced sounds b, d, dz, g, rz, w, z, ź, and ż are supposed to be pronounced like the unvoiced sounds p, t, c, k, sz, f, s, ś, and sz, respectively, at the end of a word. Does this always apply, or are there exceptions? If so, are there rules for when devocalization does not occur? Is it a dialectal thing?
I would appreciate any insight on the matter. Dziękuję.