that lov’d indeed, And would have giv’n

nkaper

Senior Member
russian
http://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/48895/pg48895-images.html
Title: The Odyssey
Author: Homer

I would to God, these goods Had rested with their owners, and that I Had fall’n on kings of more regality, To grace out my return, that lov’d indeed, And would have giv’n me consorts of fit speed
To my distresses’ ending!

My question is about the grammar of the verb forms in the underlined part. If I wrote this sentence, I would put both 'love' and 'give' in the form "would have [past participle]". Because both are unreal and are in the past. Why "love" is in the past tense? Maybe "loved" is not really the past tense form here, but the past participle, and it implies "would have" before it, which the author, not to reiterate, wrote only for the next verb 'give'?

As a subquestion, maybe somebody could explain what does the particle 'out' after the verb 'grace' mean in this context.

Thanks in advance.
 
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