the boy who lived... come to die

[TMR]

I watched Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows and I heard a sentence that Voldemort says to Harry Potter, 'Harry Potter, the Boy who Lived... come to die. Avada Kedavra!'

I don't understand why the dark lord says "come to die" instead of 'come"s" to die'?

Btw, I've checked to ensure that he really says "come" not "comes".

Thanks

 

[tepatria]

I think he is saying "has come to die" very dramatically.

 

[TMR]

I think he is saying "has come to die" very dramatically.

According to Wikiquote (en.wikiquote.org/wiki/Harry_Potter_and_the_Deathly_Hallows_%E2%80%93_Part_2#Lord_Voldemort). It says 'Harry Potter, the Boy who Lived... come to die. Avada Kedavra!'.

So, I'm sure that he says 'come' not 'has come'.

 

[tepatria]

Yes, that is what he said, but as I said, he speaks very dramatically. It is his way of emphasizing the fact that Harry will die by his hand.

 

[EStjarn]

I was about to suggest that 'come' was in the imperative mood, meaning it was a command. However, the scene itself suggests it is not a command, but rather a statement of fact. To me it seems Voldemort says: "Harry Potter, the boy who live, come to die."

I think we should not expect Voldemort to abide by each and every grammar rule. In fact, it would be inconsistent if his strangeness, as displayed in his looks and behavior, was not also reflected in his use of language.

 

[Hildy1]

A guess:
Harry Potter, (who is known as) the Boy Who Lived... (has now) come to die.
I would expect Voldemort to speak grammatically. He is an intelligent, educated person who just happens to be evil.

 

[Chasint]

1. Harry Potter survived an attack (from Voldemort if I remember correctly) when he was a child. He is therefore "the Boy who Lived"

2. Now he has returned to confront his erstwhile attacker.

3. "Harry Potter - come to die" implies the old grammatical form "You are come to die." Therefore "come to die" can be considered adjectival.

Paraphrase

Harry Potter the Boy who Lived is now come to die.


"I am come to die in the midst of you."
http://www.worldspirituality.org/thomas-becket.html


I have lived with you and loved you and now I am come to die with you.
http://books.google.co.uk/books?id=...e&q="am come to die" -potter -dracula&f=false

I am come to die amongst you.
http://books.google.co.uk/books?id=...e&q="am come to die" -potter -dracula&f=false

 

[PaulQ]

It is straightforward ellipsis:

A: "Where's your cat?"
B: "Gone to heaven: he was squashed by a bus yesterday." -> He has gone to heaven... "

'Harry Potter, the Boy who Lived... has come to die. Avada Kedavra!'

 

[Chasint]

It is straightforward ellipsis:

A: "Where's your cat?"
B: "Gone to heaven: he was squashed by a bus yesterday." -> He has gone to heaven... "

'Harry Potter, the Boy who Lived... has come to die. Avada Kedavra!'

I see it differently.

A: "Where's your cat?"
B: "Up a tree" (He is up a tree)

A: "Where's your cat?"
B: "Gone" (He is gone)

A: "Where's your cat?"
B: "Missing" (He is missing)

...and then...

'Harry Potter, the Boy who Lived... here to die. Avada Kedavra!'. (is here to die)

'Harry Potter, the Boy who Lived... come to die. Avada Kedavra!'. (is come to die)

 

[kalamazoo]

I agree with Biffo. This is an adjectival phrase, not an ellipsis of 'has come.'

 

[pertranint]

Or it is written as "...come to die" with "has" eliminated. Most of the times it happens especially in movies and fiction.
Example: "You get the chip" with full form of "'Did' you get the chip"

 

[kalamazoo]

It's an old fashioned construction, but if you google combinations like "They are come to die" or "We are come to die" you can find lots of examples.

 

[PaulQ]

Whist JK Rowling is a popular and successful author, I am not sure that her use of English extends as far as "They are come to die" or "We are come to die" nor that Lord Voldemort, who seems to have been born in the 1950s, would use such language.

 

[Dale Texas]

On the other hand, there are plenty of AE and BE dialetical speakers who routinely use "come" for both the present and past tense of "to come." (By pure coincidence, I was watching an English movie this morning involving testimony on the witness stand by a Cockney-sounding housekeeper, and she spoke in the past tense with all verbs except for "come." It was always "come," never "came."

 

[Christopher5]

I'm pretty sure that the "come" verb is in the imperative like this
Harry Potter, The boy who lived... come to die (ordering him to come to die)
I think that is what they meant.

 

[kentix]

I would normally say no and that the grammar suggests otherwise. But when he says that, he does sort of wave his fingers very slightly like he is beckoning Harry. But it's very subtle. So I am very uncertain of exactly how it was meant.

 

[Christopher5]

I would normally say no and that the grammar suggests otherwise. But when he says that, he does sort of wave his fingers very slightly like he is beckoning Harry. But it's very subtle. So I am very uncertain of exactly how it was meant.

That's the thing, when he waved his fingers, he was telling him to come.

 

[Christopher5]

I'm sure that he was ordering him to come. Like someone waves their fingers to you, you go to them. Waving fingers (in the direction of someone) is telling them to come.
There is no doubt about this.

 

[Christopher5]

He doesn't have to be screaming at him to be ordering him, don't use the voice, use the sentence.
Like sometimes, a high voice is asking a question, he isn't ordering. E.g.:
WHY DID YOU DO THAT? (High Voice: CAPS) (Question: ?)

 

[Loob]

I agree with Chasint: I see it as an ellipsis of "is come to die".