the honor < of serving as / to serve as >

< Previous | Next >

Irina777555777

New Member
Russian
what would you say about ´have the right/honor/Intention/opportunity to inf´ and ´of ing´?
examples:
Here, you will have the opportunity to present your company to thousands of German-speaking authors, publishers, literature fans, translators and media professionals.
They host most of the major German literature events. Fans of literature have the unique opportunity to meet the writers and familiarise themselves with their most recent work.

To finish off, you will also have the opportunity of recruiting your future members of staff whilst enjoying the magical, invigorating and inspirational atmosphere of the Leipzig Book Fair.

For those who don’t know me yet, my name is Irina Röttger, I am a German teacher by profession but I also have the honor of serving as (why not to serve as ..) the Chairman of our teacher association.

in a grammer book I came across: The charterers have the right of loading (= the right to load) the steamer at night time. I have no intention of doing it (=no intention to do it).

Now I m curious whether there is no any difference and both are interchangeable or the meaning of the sentence changes.
 
  • PaulQ

    Senior Member
    UK
    English - England
    For those who don’t know me yet, my name is Irina Röttger, I am a German teacher by profession but I also have the honor of serving as (why not to serve as ..) the Chairman of our teacher association.
    Both “I also have the honor of serving” and “to serve as …” are possible for historical reasons concerned with Old English and the use of the dative case.

    In Old English “I also have the honor of serving” would be expressed as “I also have the honor of the service” and the word for “service” (ambiht) would have a dative ending “-ene” (ambehtene)

    The –ene (and other dative endings) then did two things:
    (i)
    It became –ing to form what we now know as a gerund/participle/-ing form
    (ii) It was lost. When it was lost, the root (ambiht-) was identical to the verb root and the distinction between the two was lost.

    In Old English, as in German, the dative implied to or for, and, as in German it was also possible to include to/for but more as an emphatic or for clarification.

    The to, as a preposition, then, in some cases became lost and in others was retained. The OED explains:

    To a certain extent, therefore, i.e. when the infinitive is the subject or direct object, to has lost all its meaning, and become a mere ‘sign’ or prefix of the infinitive. But after an intransitive verb, or the passive voice, to is still the preposition.

    In appearance, there is no difference between the infinitive in ‘he proceeds to speak’ and ‘he chooses to speak’; but in the latter to speak is the equivalent of speaking or speech, and in the former of to speaking or to speech. In form, to speak, is the descendant of Old English tó specanne; in sense, it is partly the representative of this and largely of Old English specan.(The simple infinitive, without to, remains:
    1. after the auxiliaries of tense, mood, periphrasis, shall, will; may, can; do; and the quasi-auxiliaries, must, (and sometimes) need, dare:
    2. after some vbs. of causing, etc.; make, bid, let, have,
    3. after some vbs. of perception, see, hear, feel, and some tenses of know, observe, notice, perceive, etc.,
    Your answer then is that
    I also have the honor of serving as … (gerund, but also participle/-ing form)
    and
    I also have the honor to serve as... (verb)
    are identical in history and meaning,
    as is
    I also have the honor of the service as... (noun)
     
    < Previous | Next >
    Top