'They have/had been closed for two years'

wawix

Member
SOMALI
'They have been closed for two years' and 'they had been closed for two years'
what is the difference between the above two sentences?
Thanks in advance
 
  • morzh

    Banned
    USA
    Russian
    The difference is that between it having been closed for two years to the current moment, or to some moment in the past (which may also mean that it's no longer closed).
     

    Egmont

    Senior Member
    English - U.S.
    For example:

    "They have been closed for two years." (It is now April 17, 2012. They closed two years ago, on April 18, 2010, and have not reopened since then.)

    "They had been closed for two years when the fire broke out." (If the fire broke out on October 4, 2011, they closed on October 5, 2009, and did not reopen during the two years between those dates.)

    "They had been closed for two years." :cross: Without stating or implying some earlier date, at which the two-year period ends, this is an error.
     
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