To bathe (a child) = füröszteni or fürdetni?

angeloegabri

Member
Italian
Good morning!
"To bathe (a child)" = "füröszteni" or "fürdetni"?
Or are the two verbs perfectly synonims?
In this case, are they indifferently employed or the one of them prevails in the use?
Thanks in advance to everyone who has will to answer! :):)
 
  • angeloegabri

    Member
    Italian
    And thank you very much again :):)
    So, "fürdetni" is better.
    But I have another question, just to make it clear: let's suppose we use "füröszteni" .... (perhaps it's better opening a new thread .... for not becoming off-topic .... anyway my question regards a lot of other verbs ....)
     

    francisgranada

    Senior Member
    Hungarian
    "To bathe (a child)" = "füröszteni" or "fürdetni"?
    Or are the two verbs perfectly synonims?

    Both fürdetni and füröszteni are today used, practically as synonyms.

    However, grammatically the verb fürdetni is a causative verb (műveltető ige) derived from fürdeni (like e.g. vallatni from vallani). Thus strictly speaking, fürdetni a gyereket should mean "to let/have the child bath(e)" (Italian approximately: "far bagnarsi il bambino", "lasciar lavarsi il bambino [da] se stesso").

    In practice, in general, the difference between the two verbs is typically not felt (I personally do still feel it ...).

    For curiosity, I've asked a woman (native Hungarian from Debrecen) about which form does she prefer. She gave me an interesting answer: in case of very little children she prefers füröszteni, otherwise fürdetni ...
     
    Last edited:

    angeloegabri

    Member
    Italian
    Thank you for your answer francisgranada!
    It is true: fürdetni is a causative verb! :):)
    And that woman is right when we think well: there is a difference between a child who can already wash himself and a baby, whom one must wash!
    Now: what about the simple verb fürdeni? Is it used?
     
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