No, I am pretty sure the -z is a scribal invention without any etymological background. There is at times an elided t but not at the end. E.g. Sarraz (canton de Vaud) is from the past participle serrata (corresponding to French serrée).In the transition from -z to -tz in 1563, seems like the -z particle had formerly a fonetic function "tz". The "t" was incorporated at the root veria in viriat.
This is about Francoprovencal in general and not just the Rhône-Alpes. It includes Suisse Romande, parts of Franche-Comté and the Aosta ValleyDid you perhaps know of other transitions like this one from -s > -z > -tz > -t in words at the Rhône-Alpes region?
As I said in my first post, what I have learned is that there is ultimate and penultimate stress in Francoprovencal. I have been living in the area for 30 years but so far I haven't met a single person who would qualify as a native speaker or even near-native speaker. I find it very difficult to get any information about the old language, which they simply call patois (dialect). There is unfortunately very little awareness that there might be something worth preserving.Is this accent on the first syllable a characteristic for all words in Francoprovençal?
No, the -z and -x endings are mute. Non local French speakers sometimes pronounce the -x in names like Chamonix, though never locals. But I have never heard a final -z being pronounced; not even by non-locals.Beautiful place!Even if at the beginning centuries ago the -z intended to stress a weak ending and was not spelled out, how is the pronunciation now? Local people pronounce the -z or not?
PS: Today I have heard Avoriaz (a ski resort in Haute Savoie) with a pronounced -z in a telephone answering machine message. Obviously a hyper-correction. The first time in 30 years I have heard that.But I have never heard a final -z being pronounced; not even by non-locals.
Forclaz could be derived from the diminutive.I spent yesterday at the Lac d'Annecy in Haute-Savoie and had to think of your question when driving over the Col de la Forclaz. This is a very typical example. Forclaz is derived from Latin furcam (fork). The French cognate is fourche. It is hard to think of any other reason for the -z than to indicate an unstressed ending.
The l yes. But there is no s anywhere and plural doesn't make sense. There are several Alpine passes called Forclaz (in Arpitan speaking areas) or Furca or Furka (further east). They are all passes with three roads leading to them.Forclaz could be derived from the diminutive.
furca -> diminutive furcula -> plural accusative furculas
furculas -> forculas -> forclas -> forclaz
thank you!PS: Today I have heard Avoriaz (a ski resort in Haute Savoie) with a pronounced -z in a telephone answering machine message. Obviously a hyper-correction. The first time in 30 years I have heard that.