undertakes/is obligated to

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Angli

Senior Member
Hebrew
Which one would be more correct and why ?

"The supplier undertakes/is obligated to start supplying the parts within 30 days of the company's approval."
 
  • Tegs

    Mód ar líne
    English (Ireland)
    Both are grammatically correct. Without knowing the context, we can‘t tell which is more correct in this particular case.
     

    Cagey

    post mod (English Only / Latin)
    English - US
    Where did you see this? What was being discussed?
    This is what we mean by 'context'. The rules require this information because it helps people give a good answer, which is what they want to do.
     

    Angli

    Senior Member
    Hebrew
    Where did you see this? What was being discussed?
    This is what we mean by 'context'. The rules require this information because it helps people give a good answer, which is what they want to do.
    It's just an exercise on legal documents.
     

    Tegs

    Mód ar líne
    English (Ireland)
    Well, undertake and be obligated to have different meanings, so it depends what you want to convey. Both are correct in your sentence.
     

    Angli

    Senior Member
    Hebrew
    Well, undertake and be obligated to have different meanings, so it depends what you want to convey. Both are correct in your sentence.
    I want the sentence to say that the supplier must to etc....
     

    DonnyB

    Sixties Mod
    English UK Southern Standard English
    I want the sentence to say that the supplier must to etc....
    Thank you. :)

    Of the two alternatives, "is obligated to" is closer in meaning: having an obligation to something means that they must do it.

    If they "undertake" to do something, it means that they formally agree to do it as part of the contract.
     

    Keith Bradford

    Senior Member
    English (Midlands UK)
    I would never use obligated under any circumstances; it's only used by people who think that obliged or required are too easy.

    Undertakes has a different meaning; it means that the supplier obliges himself to start within 30 days. There's no law or outside agency, such as might be involved in required.
     

    kentix

    Senior Member
    English - U.S.
    I don't see any real difference since it's a signed contract. Whatever is written in there is an obligation, no matter how its worded.

    Once the parties sign, they are legally bound to do what's written.
     
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