Thanks! In that case is there any difference between کنايتاً and مجازاً or are they interchangeable in this context? So far I've more often seen مجازاً used in dictionaries, although I haven't been using monolingual dictionaries for very long.
کنایہ and مجاز from مُجاز are not synonymous in all senses.
P H مجاز majāz (for A. mujāz, pass. part. of اجاز 'to make, or hold to be, allowable,' &c., iv of جاز (for جوز), 'to become allowable,' &c.), adj. & s.m. Allowable, admissible, lawful, authorized, warranted, licensed; legally competent (syn. jāʼiz); — artificial, feigned, insincere, false; superficial; political; worldly; profane (as opp. to divine love); — illusory, delusive; — permission, authority, licence; competency: — majāz honā, v.n. To be allowed, to be legally authorized, &c.: — gair-majāz, adj. Unauthorized, not warranted, &c.
A مجازًا majāzaṉ (acc. of majāz), adv. Figuratively, metaphorically; — (and in H. fr. majāz, corr. of mujāz), legally, lawfully; — superficially; insincerely, hypocritically.
There is a redundant space in your online source right in the middle of the word.
The spelling given in Platts is ‹ کنايتًا ›. Taking into account that nowadays ی ARABIC LETTER FARSI YEH (in Urdu چھوٹی ی chhoTii yē) is used instead of ي ARABIC LETTER YEH, it should have been typeset as کنایتًا. Although there is no visible change, it can be seen when the letters are separated: ک ن ا ي تً ا vs. ک ن ا ی تً ا ۔
The current spelling is ‹ کنایۃً › and to the best of my knowledge it's the correct one.
For further reference, there's some information about the spelling of this type of adverbs in Urdu: Pronunciation of کلیۃً and here as well: Urdu: double-zabar.
At least in Arabic, on basis of what I've gathered later on from answers to a previous question of mine in the Arabic forum, in cases when -an is written with alif (ا) , tanwin should actually precede it, and not be placed on top or typed after it.