Continued from this thread: http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=2906442
Why does Urdu maintain the Persian consonants x, f, zh, Gh, z, and q (the latter originally Arabic)? There are many Arabic consonants that Persian doesn't differentiate, such as the different forms of h, t, z, and s. All of the forms of /z/ are pronounced the same in Persian and subsequently Urdu, despite being represented by different characters in their scripts. Likewise, the same is true for h, t, and s. They are pronounced differently in Arabic but not in Persian or Urdu. So, just as Persian adapted and modified the Arabic consonants into the Persian sound system, instead of maintaining a distinction, why didn't Urdu have the same liberal outlook toward Persian sounds? Why was Urdu more conservative in preserving Persian sounds than Persian was in preserving Arabic sounds? Arabic has had a similar influence in Iran as Persian has had in India. So, what are the reasons?
Thank you.
Why does Urdu maintain the Persian consonants x, f, zh, Gh, z, and q (the latter originally Arabic)? There are many Arabic consonants that Persian doesn't differentiate, such as the different forms of h, t, z, and s. All of the forms of /z/ are pronounced the same in Persian and subsequently Urdu, despite being represented by different characters in their scripts. Likewise, the same is true for h, t, and s. They are pronounced differently in Arabic but not in Persian or Urdu. So, just as Persian adapted and modified the Arabic consonants into the Persian sound system, instead of maintaining a distinction, why didn't Urdu have the same liberal outlook toward Persian sounds? Why was Urdu more conservative in preserving Persian sounds than Persian was in preserving Arabic sounds? Arabic has had a similar influence in Iran as Persian has had in India. So, what are the reasons?
Thank you.