...Usufructo de muebles, inmuebles y/o establecimientos agrícolas

MyBadSelf

Senior Member
U.S. English
Greetings Forum Goers:
Usufructo de muebles, inmuebles y/o establecimientos agrícolas
I need a hand in translating the above phrase. This is an Argentinian legal contract for an LLC.

My try: ...right to use of personal property, real property and/or agricultural establishments.
 
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  • pontchartrain

    Senior Member
    United States, English
    I believe it means the right to use these things even though you don't own them. I myself am curious how this would be translated.
     

    Joe Esquire

    Senior Member
    Spanish Spain- English US
    Need a bit more of the phrase to see whether it is a general power in the Articles of the SRL; or is it actually a contractual arrangement with a third party involving the property interests mentioned.
     

    Joe Esquire

    Senior Member
    Spanish Spain- English US
    Need more of the phrase before your quote to see whether the “usufructo” is being retained or acquired or otherwise transferred.
     
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    Ummawar

    Senior Member
    English - USA / Spanish - México
    There is no common law (Anglo-Saxon) equivalent of usufructo -a legal concept of the civil law systems (Roman)-, which grants temporary right to use and enjoy the proceeds of another's property.

    Some possible mistranslations: life estate; lifetime interest, beneficial interest, beneficial ownership, etc. (They may be incorrect in many contexts)
    With that in mind, I suggest:
    Usufruct of chattels, real property and/or agricultural facilities.
     
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    Joe Esquire

    Senior Member
    Spanish Spain- English US
    There is no common law (Anglo-Saxon) equivalent of usufructo -a legal concept of the civil law systems (Roman)-, which grants temporary right to use and enjoy the proceeds of another's property.

    Some possible mistranslations: life estate; lifetime interest, beneficial interest, beneficial ownership, etc. (They may be incorrect in many contexts)
    With that in mind, I suggest:
    Usufruct of chattels, real property and/or agricultural facilities.
    I concur with the statement: Anglo-Saxon law (during the Anglo-Saxon period between 450 and 1066 abouts) did not contain the concept of a “usufructo”. Such law was Germanic/Scandinavian in nature, and was not a “common law“, not judge made, by traditional definition.
    The common law of England, (developed by judicial decisions, commencing with the King’s Court, after the Norman conquest) has very much replaced all vestiges of Anglo-Saxon law. (I recall the concept of Jury and certain Writs remain).

    “Anglo-Saxon” defines an ethnicity, a medieval Germanic law, and not the common law of England.

    Whether one can create the equivalent of a specifically defined “usufructo” by equivalent or nearly equivalent means, in law or equity, in Anglo-American law will depend on the facts of the usufructo in question.
     
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