Várom a párom


New Member
English - Cheshire
I got into the habit of saying "Várom a párom" but then I realised that I was missing the objective ending. Or can it be optional?
  • It is optional, you can omit the "-t" accusative marker after nouns which have the 1st or 2nd person singular possessive suffix. So várom a párom and várom a páromat are both correct.

    A similar example: Ismerem a bátyád (I know your brother) and Ismerem a bátyádat , both are correct.
    This is a sentence I saw in the tutorial of HungarianProject. I don't quite understand why a tollam is not in the Accusative case here. It's the object of the sentence. Could anyone explain that?
    Moderator's note: The two threads have been merged. Please make sure that there is not another thread already existing before starting a new thread. Thank you.

    I see, thanks. Maybe someone could merge the threads but I have some follow-up questions:
    1. Is not adding the Accusative case for 1st and 2nd persons singular a common practice? Would it sound a bit weird if I did add it in colloquial everyday language?
    2. Is the Accusative of a tollam, a tollamat?
    Last edited by a moderator: