Várom a párom

[dadge]

I got into the habit of saying "Várom a párom" but then I realised that I was missing the objective ending. Or can it be optional?

 

[Torontal]

It is optional, you can omit the "-t" accusative marker after nouns which have the 1st or 2nd person singular possessive suffix. So várom a párom and várom a páromat are both correct.

A similar example: Ismerem a bátyád (I know your brother) and Ismerem a bátyádat , both are correct.

 

[Gerry905]

This is a sentence I saw in the tutorial of HungarianProject. I don't quite understand why a tollam is not in the Accusative case here. It's the object of the sentence. Could anyone explain that?

 

[jazyk]

See here: Várom a párom

 

[Gerry905]

Moderator's note: The two threads have been merged. Please make sure that there is not another thread already existing before starting a new thread. Thank you.
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I see, thanks. Maybe someone could merge the threads but I have some follow-up questions:
1. Is not adding the Accusative case for 1st and 2nd persons singular a common practice? Would it sound a bit weird if I did add it in colloquial everyday language?
2. Is the Accusative of a tollam, a tollamat?

 

[AndrasBP]

1. Is not adding the Accusative case for 1st and 2nd persons singular a common practice?

Yes, it is.

Would it sound a bit weird if I did add it in colloquial everyday language?

No, it wouldn't sound weird at all. Both forms are commonly used.

2. Is the Accusative of a tollam, a tollamat?

Yes, that's right.

 

[Gerry905]

AndrasBP, perfect. Thanks a lot!