végzi

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palabriscious

New Member
Deutsch
Hello everyone!

I was talking with a Hungarian friend and came across a strange construction which I could not completely grasp. We were talking about blueberries and my friend said:

"Előbb-utóbb úgyis mind a pocakban végzi"

Which I would translate as "sooner or later they will end up in my tummy anyways".

My problem here is the verb "végzi". As you can see, it has the ending -i so I would expect it to be transitive and to be followed by a definite object, as for example the phrase "végzi a munkáját" (he is completing his work).

However, in this case it does mean "end up" which is an intransitive meaning. Why is there still need for an object then, as it is implied by the ending -i?

I hope I could explain my question clearly enough.
 
  • AndrasBP

    Senior Member
    Hungarian
    Hello,

    It's a good question.

    I think "valahol végzi" is an elliptical expression (where some words are omitted), short for "valahol végzi az életét".
    It is unusual, though.
     
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    Zsanna

    ModErrata
    Hungarian - Hungary
    Hello,
    Andras, you are right, however you can also use the verb in the same expression without a definite object. E.g. Valahol végez valamilyen munkát. (He/she/it does/carries out some work somewhere.) But then, the meaning is different.
    In the meaning of end up, or even more clearly: finish, it is logical that there should be a definite object.

    Even though in an expression like "Mire végzi?" (difficult to translate but this is what comes to my mind first: What will become of him?/How will he finish ... all this?), it is even more difficult to see a definite object...
     

    AndrasBP

    Senior Member
    Hungarian
    you can also use the verb in the same expression without a definite object. E.g. Valahol végez valamilyen munkát. (He/she/it does/carries out some work somewhere.) But then, the meaning is different.
    :confused: I wouldn't say it's the same expression because, as you said yourself, the meaning is different.

    in an expression like "Mire végzi?"
    I've never heard this expression before. I googled it and it appears to be literary, dialectal and/or dated.
     

    Zsanna

    ModErrata
    Hungarian - Hungary
    I meant "same" in the sens that the same verb (végez) is used with an adverb of place (valahol) and I just added an object (valamilyen munkát or valamit) to show that it is possible to be used with an object that appears (albeit with a different meaning).
    Mire végez? figures in our 2 tome one language dictionary with several (fairly different) meanings. I can't imagine it is used very often, certainly not in the capital. ;)
    In fact, this verb is used in 4 main various meanings according to the same dictionary and indeed has a tricky usage in most.
     

    francisgranada

    Senior Member
    Hungarian
    I've never heard this expression before ....
    So am I. Perhaps, "hogyan végzi", but not "mire végzi". (Of course, it doesn''t mean that such expression does not exist .... )

    I think "valahol végzi" is an elliptical expression (where some words are omitted), short for "valahol végzi az életét". ....
    I agree. Finally, your explanation is valid also for "Valahol végez.", i.e. in this case an indefinite object (valamit, egy munkát, etc ....) is omitted or supposed, that's why végez and not végzi.
     
    Last edited:
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