Question: Is it possible that it entered Hungarian from vă-pir first? ...
If this "ă
" is not
a nasal vowel, but it corresponds to the Slavic (Bulgarian) "ъ
", then I think this is highly improbable. Depending on the time of the possible borrowing and on how this "ă
" sounded exactly, in this case in Hungarian we should expect "vapír
" or "vopír
Another interesting question regarding the possible etymology of this word is, why both the vowels á
are long in Hungarian, i.e. vámpír
pronounced [‘va:mpi:r]? … (in Hungarian, whichever of these vowels could be also short).
… And that e.g. Serbian and Bulgarian borrowed it back from Hungarian? (as opposed to from Greek)
1. According to some sources (e.g. the online English Etymology dictionary) the word vampire (vampiro etc …)
in the Western European languages is a borrowing from Hungarian (vámpír
), through German and/or French.
2. In Polish (according to Wikipedia) the following variants do or did exist: wampir, wąpierz, upiór, upir
is the only form that may phonetically correspond to the supposed (Proto)Slavic *ǫpir(ь).
3. In Slovak both upír
is the form that may correspond to the presupposed *ǫpirь.
4. In Checz both upír
exist. As regular continuation of the presupposed *ǫpirь
, I should expect upíř.
5. In Russian both упырь
As the regular form of *ǫpirь
, I should expect упир(ь)
So, regardless of the "final" origin of this word (Turkic or whatever) , there are too many variants in the Slavic languages, so I think that multiple (re)borrowings surely took place, probably from Hungarian and/or German and, maybe, also among various Slavic languages. For example in Polish, I dare say that it is simply impossible that all the mentioned variants were the direct continuation of a single Protoslavic word *ǫpirь