Want + object + possessive pronoun

Hade

Member
Poland - Polish
Hello,

I want to know if it's possible to use a possesive pronoun just after the verb "to want", omitting the "to be" thing after the object. I know that in some cases it's possible to use a "normal" adjective after this verb. One day someone told me that it was possible and fully correct, but I am not sure because I can't find anything about it. By "possesive adjective" I mean "mine, yours, him, hers..." and so on. Plus, is there any difference between using "to be" and omitting it after "to want"? Is there any change in the meaning?

1) "Normal" adjective (in this case I'm 100% sure):
She wants her soup hot. (Also: I want my soup to be hot.)

2) Possesive pronoun (I'm not sure at all in this case):
I want her mine. (Is that even possible? I'd rather say I want her to be mine for sure).

Thanks in advance for your help.
 
  • AnythingGoes

    Senior Member
    English - USA (Midwest/Appalachia)
    1) "Normal" adjective (in this case I'm 100% sure):
    She wants her soup hot. (Also: I want my soup to be hot.) :tick:

    2) Possesive pronoun (I'm not sure at all in this case):
    I want her mine. :cross: (Is that even possible? I'd rather say I want her to be mine for sure). :tick:
     

    lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    You seem to be confusing possessive adjectives (my/your/his/her/our/their) and possessive pronouns (mine/yours/his/hers/ours/theirs). A possessive pronoun can be used directly after the verb want, as its direct object. For example: Whose picture do you want? I want hers.

    In your first example, the object of the verb is “her soup” and the noun “soup” is what the adjective “hot” modifies.

    In your second example, the object of the verb is the personal pronoun “her” (= that woman), so you can’t just follow it with the personal pronoun “mine” (= whatever belongs to me).
     

    lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    I think it’s because her is no longer the object of the verb want. Its object is the noun phrase “to make her mine”.
     

    velisarius

    Senior Member
    British English (Sussex)
    Yes, but...:)

    I wanted her mine.

    I made her mine.


    I think I'll just have to accept that these two verbs don't work grammatically in the same way.
     

    lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    The question is about the stative verb want. But that use of make has a dynamic sense – of actively turning one thing or person into something else. So the two pronouns do work together. I want to make her mine = I want to {turn that woman into} {something that belongs to me}.

    (I’m just thinking aloud here, I hope you realise! :D)
     
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