john_riemann_soong
Senior Member
English, Singlish, Chinese; Singapore
What is the etymology of the -iss- stem, in finissons, abolissons, etc.? I assume that the present indicative plural stem, the imparfait stem and the subjunctive stem are all related.
I found recently from etymonline that aboliss- doesn't come directly from abolere, but another verb abolescere, the inchoative form of abolere. This makes me curious, because abolere corresponds directly to abolir, and we don't have a verb like abolissir and such. Did the inchoative get absorbed into abolir and replace some of the stems in abolir, finir, etc. or get done so analogously (for Germanic verbs like choisir)?
I also wonder because when I check the conjugation of abolere in Latin, while Romance sound changes can explain how "abolet" becomes "abolit", or imperfect "amabat" to "aimait", it doesn't explain how the Latin indicative imperfect "abolebat" for abolere becomes "abolissait" (primarily, the arrival of -ss- into the stem). TLFi seems to note this, but it tells me to look up IIA -- is that a page in the print version or something?
I found recently from etymonline that aboliss- doesn't come directly from abolere, but another verb abolescere, the inchoative form of abolere. This makes me curious, because abolere corresponds directly to abolir, and we don't have a verb like abolissir and such. Did the inchoative get absorbed into abolir and replace some of the stems in abolir, finir, etc. or get done so analogously (for Germanic verbs like choisir)?
I also wonder because when I check the conjugation of abolere in Latin, while Romance sound changes can explain how "abolet" becomes "abolit", or imperfect "amabat" to "aimait", it doesn't explain how the Latin indicative imperfect "abolebat" for abolere becomes "abolissait" (primarily, the arrival of -ss- into the stem). TLFi seems to note this, but it tells me to look up IIA -- is that a page in the print version or something?