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Harry Green

Dear all,

I read this sentence from A. V. Dicey’s Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution: “The period of now more than two centuries which has elapsed since what used to be called the “Glorious Revolution,” filled as those two centuries are with change and with growth, seems hardly to have attracted the attention of a writer whom lack, not of knowledge, but of will has alone prevented from sketching out the annals of our modern constitution.” I cannot make sense of the latter part of the sentence without replacing “whom” with “whose”. Is “whom” the archaic form of “whose” in this case? Thank you.
  • Cagey

    post mod (English Only / Latin)
    English - US
    The object case 'whom' is correct. It is the object of 'prevented'.

    lack, [] of will has alone prevented [the author / him] from sketching out the annals​
    the writer whom lack of will has prevented.​

    I hope this helps you. It is an awkward sentence to analyze. If it isn't clear, please tell us what puzzles you. Someone will try to explain.


    Senior Member
    British English
    I think most people would say that it should be "whose", but "whom" is correct, albeit in a clause that is tricky to analyse.
    Last edited:
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